1: "Money could finally beget money because power, with complete disregard for all laws--economic as well as ethical--could appropriate wealth. Only when exported money succeeded in stimulating the export of power could it accomplish its owners' designs. Only the unlimited accumulation of power could bring about the unlimited accumulation of capital."'
2: At the close of the century the owning classes had become so dominant that it was almost ridiculous for a state employee to keep up the pretense of serving the nation."
So two questions now:
1. Who is the more powerful partner in an imperium? Is it countries or corporations?
2. How, if at all, can you tell the power of one from the power of the other?
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Rhodes vs. You Know Who Part 2
Alright, let's say his name... When dealing with the comparisons of Cecil Rhodes and Elon Musk, we m may be seeing the evolution of imperialism through the span of 125 years. Modern imperialism began long before Rhodes, but Rhodes the embodiment of its historical zenith. Everything that imperialism was, everything imperialism stood for, was Cecil Rhodes.
Whatever stand one takes about how much 20th century America resembled the imperialism of 19th century Europe, it would seem that America is heading into a very different form of imperialism during the 21st; and for the moment you can, if you like, interpret Elon Musk's presence on the world stage as figure who acquaints the United States with much older notions of how the world should be run, and much as the older imperialists did, he brings us to this very old way of running the world by conquest by claiming that he is bringing the world very new things.
However ambitious Elon Musk's Department of Government Efficiency seems, it could easily be much more ambitious. Musk and Trump do not want to remove the incompetent or superfluous from government, they want to remove all conscientious public servants so that their actions have no accountability. Once they're removed, their kleptocracy operates without interference, and it's only a matter of months before the kleptocracy turns its attentions abroad.
I'm not good at predictions, but if the US fulfills Trump's threats to invade Canada and Greenland, I will eat my shoe. The US carries 26% of the world's gross domestic product, that may be half of what it used to be, but it's concentrated in the hands of 756 billionaires and roughly 20,000 corporations. If the United States government wants to dictate policy to a weaker country, it is so much easier to do it through economic leverage than go to the expense and frustration of an invasion. A country like Russia can only get its way through territorial expansion because, having only 3.53% of the world's gross domestic product, Russia does not have the economic power to dictate terms to anyone by business (and much more, of course, on Russian imperialism in a later class...). If America decides to territorially expand, it would only be if an American President was so in the pocket of his Russian counterpart that he would expand American territory as a means to normalize Russia's behavior...
21st century imperialism has little need of territorial acquisition. All it requires is to make submissive countries economically dependent on the companies of a dominating world power. So long as the companies are in control its own government's policies, that is empire in all but name. One could make a reasonably good argument that America was already that sort of neo-imperial power in the 20th century, but the controls on other countries are likely to seem very loose in comparison to the direction America seems to be taking under Trump.
Elon Musk began his life in South Africa, Cecil Rhodes ended it there, and Musk was raised in the conditions and worldview Cecil Rhodes provided: white nationalism, hostility to protests, hostility to labor unions, economic deregulation and most importantly, authoritarian control over the country's majority maintained by economic dependence of the poor on the rich--which also 'happens' to divide on racial, and given a figleaf of legitimacy by defending it as the results of 'free private enterprise.'
Cecil Rhodes imported the archetypal form of imperialism to South Africa, and Elon Musk seems to be the historical figure to export it.
So two questions:
1. From whatever you konw about imperialism, how was were foreign policies of 20th century America similar to 19th century European imperialism?
2. The opposite: How was 20th century America different from 19th century European imperialism?
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What have the Romans ever done for us?
Shortly into the section on imperialism, Arendt makes a point that I somewhat disagree with, and that will lead us into a broader discussion of imperialism. She notes that imperialism was the first time that 'expansion became an end in itself and not a temporary means.' That can't possibly be true, can it?
First of all, what kind of imperialism? We take imperialism to mean 19th century Europe, but does it really begin there? Isn't every military conquest some form of imperium? Isn't the plunder of tribute states the oldest dirty trick in politics? And looking at so many of the world's largest empires: Romans, Mongols, Chinese, Spanish, Portuguese, the Caliphates: what really was the difference between them and the Brits and French? Constant need for expansion? Check. Plundering conquered territories of their wealth and resources? Check. Exploitation of foreign workers? Check. Creating an empire that subsists on mass trade? Check. Indoctrinating the occupied countries into the culture of their rulers? Check and a half.
And that leads to the ultimate question about imperialism.
Is it possible to have a world without imperialism?
I submit that we haven't had one yet.
To talk about imperialism in 2025 is an extremely loaded issue, and unfortunately we'll have to dive in over and over again in these classes. Just have a fair warning: you may be uncomfortable with the conclusions these talks draw.
What this teacher can't doubt is that the best results of imperialism are no better than the best results of when the territories in question are under the best of their rulers. People who talk about the horrific Indian famines under the British neglect to mention one thing: the famines were no better under the reign of the Mughals, and if anything a bit less frequent. Both imperiums hogged their resources while their subjects starved, but only one of them claimed they would do better than that for their subjects.
What most rankles this teacher most about 19th century imperialism is the foul hypocrisy of it. The British and French claimed that their true mission was to civilize their people, and all the while committed acts of theft on the grandest possible scale. Even if other parts of the world did not know how to mine their resources properly, the resources belonged to them, and perhaps it would been better just to leave these countries to their pre-industrial mortality rates.
Over the last four-hundred years, parts of the world have been neatly divided into nations a number of times, borders usually determined by language, and it's usually resulted in a larger power subsuming the smaller countries into subservience. That obviously gets us to inter-European imperialism, which we'll discuss in a later class, but it can't be denied that there are ways in which imperialism has brought benefits: obviously not equal to its horrors, but realistically speaking, the way the world evolves is a process not all that dissimilar from imperialism: a country with superior technology conquers another country, brings their developments into the new place, the new place struggles with a divided sense of identity these new technologies bring, and sometimes, the conquered country synthesizes these disparate conceptions of the world to create a new identities and new technologies, and they become the conqueror instead of the conquered. No one in 1648 would have predicted that Germany would become a functional state, let alone either a totalitarian imperium or the world's most reliable liberal democracy. Similarly, no one in 200 AD would imagine that Italy would spend the next 2000 years as the sick man of Western Europe.
But even within Western imperialism, there are differences. On the one hand, there are the British and French who established some education, rule of law and infrastructure, on the other, there is the Belgian imperium in the Congo which established a country-wide rubber mine as the sole property of its king, enslaved the entire population, and killed somewhere between 2 and 10 million people--in a country of 20 million. So many who were spared death suffered all manner of other abuse: not just slavery but all the crimes which come with slavery; labor well past exhaustion, unlawful imprisonment, mutilation, rape, and constant beatings. Less known about is the German imperium, which, while not as lethal as Belgium, used chemical weapons on its subjects, an obvious pre-echo of the Holocaust.
But there are great debates about the number of deaths for which the British Empire is responsible. Some hold that the death toll in India alone is no less than 100 million people, and this is just over the forty years between 1880 and 1920. I've seen one figure that goes up to 165 million. These figures could not be more highly disputed by many historians, and even if true, this clearly is not a number of actively murdered but a number of people which died prematurely. This figure is deeply problematic because it's nearly impossible to define premature death in rural, pre-industrial societies when famine was at least as common before the British arrived and the populace could be killed at any point by the arbitrary spread of disease--diseases which the British were guaranteed to respond to better than the former Mughal rulers. But so far as can be measured, under British rule life expectancy seems to have gone down, while extreme poverty increased, perhaps vastly, but even these statistics are disputable. The further forward in history you go, the more reliable the records get, so there may well have been more premature dead and impoverished before British rule than we can possibly know. However, what can't be be disputd is that Britain siphoned out literal trillions of pounds from India's holdings. No records are kept more reliably than in finance, so in almost two centuries of the British Raj, beginning with the rule of Indian territory by British East India company in 1757 and ending with the British Empire leaving India in 1947: the British Empire seems to have extracted 9.2 trillion pounds--a number whose currency value was far vaster at the time. This surely must be the most spectacular act of theft in world history.
But this is only one country in the British Empire. When the figure combines with their other holdings, the extent of the theft would beggar belief still much more.
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Theft vs. Collapse
Another point Arendt makes is that imperialism delayed the inevitable collapse of Europe, and the governments of Europe knew perfectly well a collapse was coming even if the people did not. Britain and Germany, the two dominant industrial powers, came very close to war a number of times before World War I, political assassination was a colossal risk that every head of state simply had to accept, economic depressions equal to the Great Depression were a guaranteed event for one year out of every twenty, and organized labor caused mass civil unrest regularly. Perhaps what's more extraordinary than World War I was that a similarly deadly event hadn't happened already. The revolutions of 1848 almost made the governments of Europe go up in smoke at the same time, and after that, the upper classes feared a moment that would bring Europe to collapse for decades, until seventy years later, when it was the upper classes who facilitated European collapse by instigating World War I.
What delayed the collapse for so long was imperialism: the relatively easy theft of goods and raw materials from parts of the world that often didn't know their own resources and couldn't defend themselves from countries with superior weaponry. Europe experienced no major wars between 1871 and 1914. They came close: countries always do, and there were plenty of conflicts in imperial colonies, but why go to war with an equally powerful country over resources when resources flowed in so easily from elsewhere?
So two questions:
1. Would you support impoverishing another country to prevent the collapse of your own?
2. Would you support your country taking resources from a country that would have no idea how to extract them without your country's presence?
Arendt points to another problem: capitalism requires expansion, and by the 1880s, it was only through imperialism that capital would expand into new markets. Imperialism was not only a way to import goods, it was a way to export them. It was a means to create new markets by Westernizing the culture of native colonists, making them dependent on products of which they had no idea until the West controlled their countries. It would take too long to list all the products and where they were manufactured, but this was the period when global trade became a phenomenon on a truly mass scale. Everyone produced, and everyone consumed.
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A Digression for a Double Duality:
Elites vs. Bourgeois
Mass vs. Mob
"In Marxist terms the new phenomenon of an alliance between mob and capital seemed so unnatural, so obviously in conflict with the doctrine of class struggle, that the actual dangers of the imperialist attempt--to divide mankind into master races and slave races, into higher and lower breeds, into colored peoples and white men, all of which were attempts to unify people on the basis of the mob--were completely overlooked."
So at some point, we have to talk about two important distinctions in Arendt: the difference between the 'elite' and the 'bourgeois', and the difference between she terms 'the masses' and what she terms 'the mob.'
A lightning quick social history: in Arendt's terminology, the 'elite' is basically a term for the descendants of the aristocracy, whose power was obviously depleted in the French Revolution; not just in France but all around Europe. People let it be known in 1789 and again in 1848 that they would not stand for the abuses of monarchy and demanded new leadership. By the time of World War I, only Russia remained an absolute monarchy, every other major European monarchy was constitutional, and the while the social status and relative power of the aristocracy remained 'elite', they were not the true rulers of countries.
The true rulers were the 'bourgeoisie': the gentry, the millionaires, the industrialists, the bankers, the commodity traders, the lawyers. And as a 'class' that included, of course, their families. The aristocracy ruled by status, your status in society was fixed, you were born a noble or a peasant, and that's how you died; but the bourgeoisie ruled by social mobility. If you rose to wealth, the wealth bought you influence, and you became an important mover of society. This social structure obviously leant itself well to imperial practices.
So does the modern world have 'elites' or a fixed class system? Certainly not by the standards of any century before the 20th, but we've become so far removed from the old aristocracy that maybe we need entirely new definitions of social class.
So by Arendt's definition, whom would you say are our elites? Who are our bourgeois?
This problem is nebulous enough that I'll do something hopefully rare and answer my own question, to which I'm not sure there's an answer. It's often said America's founding Anglo-Saxon Protestants comprise the 'elite' aristocracy, but compared to the elite privileges of the old aristocracy, it's miniscule. On the other hand, we all can't help noticing, the top 1% of the US owns 30% of our wealth: about $43 trillion, while when you combine the wealth of America's 756 billionaires, they hold more wealth than the bottom 50% of society. The further forward in time we get, the more wealth seems to concentrate at the top and the harder social mobility becomes. It may or may not constitute a new aristocracy, or 'elite', perhaps time will tell if the descendants of today's mega-billionaires retain all their money and power through the generations, but in the meantime, the corporate leaders of this country surely have as much proportion of the wealth in our day as minor feudal lords had in theirs. Even if their power is not inherited, they can at least be considered a 'temporary aristocracy,' and that surely makes them 'elite'.' Meanwhile, perhaps the top 1% of the population constitutes a new 'bourgeois' class, and as working and middle class wages stagnate from decade to decade, the American bourgeois gradually becomes no more inclusive a class than existed in 19th century Western Europe.
If this trend continued for another hundred years, which is hardly to say that it will, how hard is it believe the US would have something like an absolute monarch with a titled elite aristocracy?
So Arendt's term, the 'masses', is pretty self-explanatory. It's everybody who isn't an elite and isn't part of the bourgeoisie. On the other hand, the 'mob' is more complicated. The best thing I can do to describe it is to revive Hillary Clinton's old term, the 'basket of deplorables.'
Now, perhaps in a while, there will be all sorts who end up 'deplorables' of the Left, doing things like storm the Capitol in a January 6th situation to overturn an election proven without reasonable doubt to go against them, but thus far, and there's no avoiding saying this or sugarcoating it: for all the misgivings one might have about current left ideology, and this teacher has plenty, anybody who sees greater or even equivalent authoritarianism on the left as the right is kidding themselves to a sinister extent. The right wing of American discourse, and not the soft-right, controls all three branches of government, almost always votes as a monolithic bloc, and the Supreme Court recently ruled that all Presidential acts have legality. Election results are widely denied because a ruling on who won the 2020 election took extra days: the biggest reason for that? President Trump deliberately stymied the Postal Service in an attempt to divert mail-in votes. The American right has become the authoritarianism they claim they save us from.
Is the authoritarian wing of the Republican party really half of Trump voters as Clinton claimed? I don't know, but what I do know is that the notion that Trump voters are the American poor is easily disproven. A 2016 poll showed that the average median income of a Trump voter's family was $72,000. Meanwhile, the same article from 538.com showed that the average Clinton voter had a household income of $61,000--Sanders voters by the way had the exact same average income. This is born out by other statistics: the Pew Research Center says that 58% of lower income families vote Democrat.
$72,000 is not quite as much as it might seem: many of these households are two-income households. Nevertheless, it does show that from the beginning, Trump had much more support from higher income brackets than people generally suppose, and Clinton had much less. A more likely explanation than that the average Trump voter is poor is that the average Trump voter is afraid of losing income.
Here's where I draw the line about who's a deplorable, and I'll tell you why in a moment. My drawing line between a deplorable and a non-deplorable is whether or not a Trump voter supported January 6th.
As far as attempted coup d'etats go, January 6th was relatively mild by your average third world hostile government takeover; but the intention was there for all to see, and one's feelings on January 6th is the ultimate test of whether a Republican crossed the line into authoritarianism.
So as rageful as one might be at them, we all should be deeply uncomfortable calling half of Trump voters a 'basket of deplorables.', but not as uncomfortable as we hope to be. In 2021, 50% of Republicans strongly disapproved of January 6th, and 28% somewhat disapproved. One must angrily note: this disapproval waned over time. By 2024, only 30% strongly disapproved and 40% somewhat disapproved. Not too many things are truly deplorable, but I think it safe to rule that one of them is an authoritarian takeover of the US government. So even if half of Trump voters are not 'deplorables', it's safe to say that a quarter are.
People are very complicated and deficiencies of character in one area are often compensated by a surfeit of character in others. What traits among people who might be termed 'deplorables' would you say are particularly redeeming?
So now we come to Arendt's definition of the 'mob,' and relate it back to her definition of elites. Elsewhere, she often writes about the union of elites and mob in an attempt to overthrow the bourgeoisie, but it's telling here that in the quote at the beginning of this section she uses the word 'capital' instead of 'mob.' That implies a broader base of funding than just the aristocracy: it includes part of the bourgeoisie, perhaps that part that wants the rest of the bourgeoisie deposed so they can increase their power.
The 'elite' have a vested interest in overthrowing the bourgeois, and join the mob which is made of something she does not call 'deplorables', but rather, in her words: "the déclassés of all classes." More specifically:
"...mob is primarily a group in which the residue of all classes are represented. This makes it so easy to mistake the mob for the people, which also comprises all strata of society."
Basically, the mob is those who would commit civil violence to further their goals and all of their fellow travelers. And according to Arendt, they are in alliance with the elite. Again, we don't know who the elite is in American society, but we very much know who appears elite temporarily.
So allow me to offer a different interpretation of the bourgeoisie, one that might stand in exact opposition to what the 'bourgeois' used to be. Perhaps the American bourgeoisie is the by-and-large educated, the 'white collar' professionals, the left-of-center inteligentsia, the "creative class": scientists, academics, researchers, teachers, civil servants, librarians, artists, engineers, publicists, mental health professionals, many types of lawyers and doctors. They all lean Democrat. Some heavily. Meanwhile, no matter what the income distribution, it's true that most blue collar jobs lean Republican: oil workers, loggers, truck drivers, exterminators, construction workers, plumbers, farmers, they all lean Republican. There are all sorts of jobs whose ideological orientation may surprise you: surgeons lean Republican, people who work in sports lean Democrat, while policemen are stunningly close to 50/50. By this metric, it's true, blue collar leans Republican, white collar leans Democrat, but it might stun you how little income gap there is between the two. So in that sense, perhaps "the creative class" is a bad definition of 'bourgeois.'
But if Republicans have as much of the working class as they think, and Democrats have as much of this 'bourgeoisie' as Republicans allege, and if Republicans are as financially strapped as the Republican party claims, then this upping of the average income must come from somewhere, and therefore it can only come from the 'elite', or the 1%, that means to depose this white collar bourgeois class, and the elite presence drives the average income of a Trump voter massively upward. If this white collar class is the bourgeoisie, and maybe it isn't, then there is little question that this temporary elite is working with a mob to strip them of their power. All you have to do is remember who was in the second row of the dais at Trump's inauguration.
Perhaps this particular section is a digression, but it's a necessary one to have at some pont. These are terms I need to define sooner rather than later to orient the reader/participant, because they will appear many times over its course and you need to know what Arendt is talking about. To say nothing of the teacher...
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